I am currently running 2 rf-63's hooked up to a Marantz sr 5003. Last night a buddy of mine brought over his older onkyo amp and the improvement, especially in the bass department was pretty jaw dropping. So I am unsure what my next piece should be, either an emotiva xpa-3 to power the l/r and the future rc-64 center, or a subwoofer. I feel like I should get the amp first, and power the speakers I have to their fullest...but then again, a subwoofer would take a huge load off my fronts. For HT I should probably get the center first, but my wife listens to music on an equivalent or higher rate than I watch movies, and she is letting me buy something so I am not going to argue and will push the center channel campaign back a couple months.
So, amp or sub? I tried a search, didn't get to much.
Also, while you are reading this, help explain this to me. Last night when my buddy brought his amp over we powered the 63's with just his amp at first. The bass was VASTLY improved and overall sound performance was much better. BUT at around the extreme volume lvl of -5 through -3 the tweeter/highs started to distort or sound quality seemed to decline. So, we decided to hook his amp to just the 63's lows, and the Marantz's L/R outputs to the 63's highs. Now, I could easily run at around the 0 volume lvl with no noticable distortion in the highs, and infact the Marantz seemed to create MUCH more pleasing Highs than did powering the speaker soley by the amp. This was not just my opinion but a my buddy who has some experience with speakers, AND two wives both agreed that the AMP/Receiver set up created a much cleaner sound.
Why would this be? Could the seperate amp not keep up with both the highs/lows at that volume lvl? Did "bi-amping" with the amp/receiver give the 63's the power they wanted at ultra high volumes? With no active crossover, wouldn't the full range of sound be sent to both the highs and lows then the passive crossover has to figure it out (not really part of the above example, just wanting to understand)? Would the more powerful XPA-3 create a sound similiar to the receiver/amp set up I tried last night? Were the brighter almost uncomfortable highs experienced with the amp only set up specific to that amp (as with the marantz powering the highs they were much more pleasing)? If I got the XPA-3 would anyone suggest "bi-amping" the lows with the xpa and the highs with the marantz if I wasn't happy with the highs the xpa alone produced?
alot of questions here, thanks for ANY help, no need to answer them all, just any you might have an answer or opinion for.
Thanks,
Ted