tidmack Posted March 22, 2005 Share Posted March 22, 2005 Hi everyone- A couple years ago, I experimented with hooking two pairs of speakers up to a Mac 2105 using some suggestions here on the forum. Soon after, I found a 2100 and didn't need to run both off one amp. At the time, I also asked about running two amps with one preamp and was told that splitting the signal from my preamp (mx 113) is ok to do. So I went out and bought some Monster Y splitters, but found that the volume wasn't the same. For instance, 10:00 on the preamp volume knob before running both amps gave me "X" volume. With the 2nd amp and set of speakers hooked up (4 LaScalas), the pair of speaks that originally gave me "X" volume at 10:00 were now not as loud. The overall volume of course was louder because I had a 2nd set of speakers hooked up. I soon disconnected everything and went back to listening to just one pair, one amp. Was I hearing things? Without an SPL meter, it's difficult to discern whether or not the original pair of LaScalas were indeed softer when the 2nd amp was hooked up. My question is: did I properly hook both amps up to the mx 113? How do those on the board hook up multiple pairs of speakers and amps using vintage equipment that is only meant for 1 or 2 pairs of speakers or just 1 amp? Eventually, I'd love to score some cornerhorns and put together a Mac amp based home theatre with the pair of horns and 4 LaScalas. Hoping I made some sense, Jeff Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mark1101 Posted March 22, 2005 Share Posted March 22, 2005 Yeah, you have it hooked up correctly. I split the signal the same way to use a couple of powered subs instead of what you are doing. The preamp I just purchased (JuicyMusic Peach) has a specific "Low impedance" mode for doing just that. It provides a lower output impedance basically for long cables or split signals to deliver more power output. Hopefully, the experts here will chime in with a better technical explanation for you. It just sounds to me like you "loaded your preamp down" and that's all you get. But I think you have it right. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
tidmack Posted March 22, 2005 Author Share Posted March 22, 2005 Mark, Thanks for your input. I'm sort of baffled here. . . I'd really like to have two pairs of speakers running up in the living room without having to use a receiver. We'll see if anyone else chimes in- Jeff Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DrWho Posted March 22, 2005 Share Posted March 22, 2005 Could you explain the previous set up and the current setup in better detail? Like piece by piece through the signal chain. I am unfamiliar with the amps in question, but I have some ideas to explain what you're experiencing. The first amp is just a normal stereo amplifier (two channels, two amps) to which you had two speakers connected in parallel to each channel? And your second amp is a 4 speaker stereo amplifier? (four channels, four amps)? It seems to me that your previous setup was louder because you were halving the impedance that the amp was seeing (4 ohms), thus doubling it's output in watts which makes each speaker 3dB louder (for a total of 6dB louder). Going to your second setup, your speakers are now showing an 8 ohm load to the speaker which halves it's output (relative to 4 ohms) which results in a 3dB loss of sound. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
tidmack Posted March 23, 2005 Author Share Posted March 23, 2005 No problem, here's a little better explanation. . . I have a two channel amp and I get "x" volume when the dial on my preamp is at, let's say 10:00. Oddly, when I add another two channel amp (Y splitter used to connect to 2 channel preamp) to connect another pair of speakers, the volume is noticeable quieter on the original pair of speakers that were used in the two channel system. The overall sound is louder becuase I now have 4 speakers, but the volume from that particular pair seems less than when I had them running on their own. I'm using two identical amps and 4 of the same model/vintage of speakers. The only thing that's changing is I'm splitting the preamp signal to accomodate the extra amp to run the 2nd pair of speakers. I'm hoping this helps a bit. Earlier in the post, someone suggested that I'm possible halving the preamp signal. If yes, is that bad? Jeff Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DrWho Posted March 23, 2005 Share Posted March 23, 2005 Ok, splitting the signal on the preamp is just like running a pair of speakers in parallel on the amp. When using the splitters, you were basically halving the impedance that the preamp saw which meant the preamp was putting out twice the power. Now that you've added another amp, your impedance is back to normal, which means the preamp is putting out half the power...in the end, your original speakers should be between 3dB and 6dB quieter (I'm surprised you noticed the difference). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
tidmack Posted March 23, 2005 Author Share Posted March 23, 2005 Who, Thanks!!! Ok, one last question. . .is this safe to do? Am I taxing the preamp or amps in any way by doing the split? Is there a better alternative for running multiple amps while still using my existing equipment? Thanks a ton- Jeff Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DrWho Posted March 23, 2005 Share Posted March 23, 2005 you're all good, sounds like you have everything connected correctly and it's perfectly safe to do. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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